Open Channel Flow LAB REPORT



Aim
TO study the open channel flow in a rectangular perspex channel

Objectives
1. Investigate the uniform flow condition in open channel flow
2. Verify the manning’s equation


Theory
According to Dr. Khalil M. ALASTAL (n.d) an open channel is like a duck with flowing fluid and whose surface is exposed to atmosphere. As the atmospheric pressure remains constant through the length of duct so the fluid flows only due to the difference in potential energy.

According to Ivan Gramatikov (n.d) flow rate of water in a channel is the product of its area with the velocity of water through that area Q=A×V. Where A is area of cross section and V is velocity of the fluid. Volumetric flow rate is the ratio of volume of flowing fluid to the time takenQ=∆V/t. Area of the rectangular channel is the product of its width with the depth of the water flowing through that areaA=b ×y_o. Where b is the width of the rectangular channel and y_o is the depth of the flow.

According to David Knighton Wetted perimeter is the perimeter used for the wet cross section area. In an open channel flow it can be define as the sum of the sides of channels those are in direct contact with the flowing fluid. With the increase in wetted perimeter the friction losses increase resulting in the decrease in heat.

P=b+yo+yo

P=b+2 ×yo  

According to Bernard Le Méhauté channel flow efficiency of an open channel flow in measured in the term of hydraulic radius some time also called hydraulic mean depth. It is ratio of the channel cross section area to the wetted perimeter. Hydraulic radius is the function of shape of the channel not the half of the hydraulic diameter. 
R=A/P

According to Manning R. (1891) manning equation is used to find the theoretical flow rate of the fluid flowing under the action of gravity also called the open channel. 

Q=  A/n  × R^(2/3)  × So^(1/2)

Here So is the slope of the bed of the channel which enable the water to flow under the action of gravity. 

Procedure
Following is the procedure to perform the experiment according to Dr. Khalil M. ALASTAL (n.d)

1. Set up the flow channel apparatus

2. Adjust the support frame feet so that the flow channel does not rock

3. Reset the clock dial to zero 

4. Check the water depth along the length of channel, it should be constant to prove that the initial slope of bed is zero

5. With the help of a jack at the back of channel, set the slope of the channel to a gradient of 1/500 that is 0.002

6. Start the pump and introduce water into the channel by operating valves

7. Use the flow control valve to set the flow rate of water at 2.5 liter/sec 

8. Allow the flow in the channel to settle and then take the measurement of depth of water with the help of scales placed at their respective position

9. Note that the space between the scales should not be greater than 2 mm

10. Now adjust the flow control valve three times to set the flow rate to three different values of 2.0, 1.5 and 1.0 liter/sec and note the depth of water for all three flow rates.

11. Repeat the complete above procedure for the slope of gradient 0.005 and note the values in the below given tables

12. Calculate the value for Area, Wetted perimeter, Hydraulic Radius and Theoretical Flow rate.

13. Also convert the measured flow rate from liter per second to cubic meter per second

Observations
Numbers of experiments were performed according to above mention procedure, with different flow rates and with different slopes and data was recorded in the following table.

Table 1 Observation for So = 1/200
So
y1 mm
y2  mm
volume liter
Time sec
1/200
42.5
42
20
9.93
1/200
42.8
41.8
20
9.1
1/200
42.8
40.8
20
9.57
1/200
44.1
43.2
20
9.4


Table 2 Observation for So = 1/500
So
y1 mm
y2  mm
volume liter
Time sec
1/500
55.6
54.2
20
10.85
1/500
55.5
54.3
20
9.5
1/500
54.9
54
20
9.48
1/500
54.4
53.8
20
9.8


Analysis

Using the data gathered as the result of experiment performed, to get the values of mean depth, Area, wetted perimeter, hydraulic radius and theoretical flow rate with the help of formulas mention above.  

Table 3 Calculation for So = 0.005
QM  /sec
yo    (m)
A ()
P (m)
R   (m)
So
QT /sec
0.0025
0.04225
0.003211
0.1605
0.020006
0.005
0.001859201
0.002
0.0423
0.003215
0.1606
0.020017
0.005
0.001862096
0.0015
0.0418
0.003177
0.1596
0.019905
0.005
0.001833174
0.001
0.04365
0.003317
0.1633
0.020315
0.005
0.001940505

Table 4 Calculation for So = 0.0.002
QM  /sec
yo   (m)
A ()
P (m)
R  (m)
So
QT  /sec
0.0025
0.0549
0.004172
0.1858
0.022456
0.002
0.001650258
0.002
0.0549
0.004172
0.1858
0.022456
0.002
0.001650258
0.0015
0.05445
0.004138
0.1849
0.022381
0.002
0.001633053
0.001
0.0541
0.004112
0.1842
0.022321
0.002
0.001619686


Conclusion

Values for the measure flow rate were recorded using flow meter and value of theoretical flow rate was calculated by using manning equation. Difference between the values of these two flow rates is because the theoretical flow rate depends on the slope of the channel bed and also on the other factory like manning roughness coefficient but the measure flow rate depends only on the area and velocity of the fluid through that area.

Applying the same flow rate at different slopes has shown that the change in the slope of bed change the theoretical flow rate value as it depends on the depth of the flow. Value of theoretical flow rate at 0.002 gradient is less than the value at the 0.005 gradient, this show that increasing the gradient increase the theoretical flow rate while the measured flow rate remain the same. 

HYDRAULIC MACHINES - Mechanical Engineering Multiple choice Questions Answers

HYDRAULIC MACHINES


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  1. Reciprocating pumps are no more to be seen in industrial applications (in comparison to centrifugal pumps) because of
    (a) high initial and maintenance cost
    (b) lower discharge
    (c) lower speed of operation
    (d) necessity of air vessel
    (e) all of the above.
    Ans: a

  2. In a centrifugal pump casing, the flow of water leaving the impeller, is
    (a) rectilinear flow
    (b) radial flow
    (c) free vortex motion
    (d) forced vortex
    (e) none of the above.
    Ans: c

  3. Head developed by a centrifugal pump depends on
    (a) impeller diameter
    (b) speed
    (c) fluid density
    (d) type of casing
    (e) (a) and (b) above.
    Ans: e

  4. For starting an axial flow pump, its delivery valve should be
    (a) closed
    (b) open
    (c) depends on starting condition and flow desired
    (d) could be either open or closed
    (e) partly open and partly closed.
    Ans: b

  5. The efficiency of a centrifugal pump is maximum when its blades are
    (a) straight
    (b) bent forward
    (c) bent backward
    (d) bent forward first and then backward
    (e) bent backward first and then forward.
    Ans: c


 

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HEAT TRANSFER - Mechanical Engineering Multiple choice Questions Answers

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1. Unit of thermal conductivity in M.K.S. units is
(a) kcal/kg m2 °C
(b) kcal-m/hr m2 °C
(c) kcal/hr m2 °C
(d) kcal-m/hr °C
(e) kcal-m/m2 °C.
Ans: b

2. Unit of thermal conductivity in S.I. units is
(a) J/m2 sec
(b) J/m °K sec
(c) W/m °K
(d) (a) and (c) above
(e) (b) and (c) above.
Ans: e

3. Thermal conductivity of solid metals with rise in temperature normally
(a) increases
(b) decreases
(c) remains constant
(d) may increase or decrease depending on temperature
(e) unpredictable.
Ans: b

4. Thermal conductivity of non-metallic amorphous solids with decrease in temperature
(a) increases
(b) decreases
(c) remains constant
(d) may increase or decrease depending on temperature
(e) unpredictable.
Ans: b

5. Heat transfer takes place as per –
(a) zeroth law of thermodynamics
(b) first law of thermodynamic
(c) second law of the thermodynamics
(d) Kirchoff’s law (e) Stefan’s law.
Ans: c

6.
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120. A grey body is one whose absorptivity
(a) varies with temperature
(b) varies with the wave length of incident ray
(c) varies with both
(d) does not vary with temperature and wave length of the incident ray
(e) there is no such criterion.
Ans: d

 

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1. Fluid is a substance that
(a) cannot be subjected to shear forces
(b) always expands until it fills any container
(c) has the same shear stress.at a point regardless of its motion
(d) cannot remain at rest under action of any shear force
(e) flows.
Ans: d

2. Fluid is a substance which offers no resistance to change of
(a) pressure
(b) flow
(c) shape
(d) volume
(e) temperature.
Ans: c

3. Practical fluids
(a) are viscous
(b) possess surface tension
(c) are compressible
(d) possess all the above properties
(e) possess none of the above properties.
Ans: d

4. In a static fluid
(a) resistance to shear stress is small
(b) fluid pressure is zero
(c) linear deformation is small
(d) only normal stresses can exist
(e) viscosity is nil.
Ans: d

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251. For similarity, in addition to models being geometrically similar to prototype, the following in both cases should also be equal
(a) ratio of inertial force to force due to viscosity
(b) ratio of inertial force to force due to gravitation
(c) ratio of inertial force to force due to surface tension
(d) all the four ratios of inertial force to force due to viscosity, gravitation, sur-face tension, and elasticity
Ans: d


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ENGINEERING MATERIALS - Mechanical Engineering Multiple choice Questions Answers

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ENGINEERING MATERIALS Questions Answers


 

  1. Ductility of a material can be defined as
    (a) ability to undergo large permanent deformations in compression
    (b) ability to recover its original form
    (c) ability to undergo large permanent deformations in tension
    (d) all of the above
    (e) none of the above.
    Ans: c

  2. Malleability of a material can be defined as
    (a) ability to undergo large permanent deformations in compression
    (b) ability to recover its original form
    (c) ability to undergo large permanent deformations in tension
    (d) all of the above
    (e) none of the above.
    Ans: a

  3. In compression, a prism of brittle material will break
    (a) by forming a bulge (l>) by shearing along oblique plane
    (c) in direction perpendicular to application of load
    (d) by crushing into thousands of pieces
    (e) none of the above.
    Ans: b

  4. The ability of a material to resist softening at high temperature is known as
    (a) creep
    (b) hot tempering
    (c) hot hardness
    (d) fatigue
    (e) superhardening.
    Ans: c

  5. Mild steel belongs to the following category
    (a) low carbon steel
    (b) medium carbon steel
    (c) high carbon steel
    (d) alloy steel
    (e) special steel.
    Ans: a


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195. Lead is poured into the joint between two pipes. These pipes may be made of
(a) cast iron
(b) vitrified clay
(c) asbestos cement
(d) concrete
(e) mild steel.
Ans: a

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PRODUCTION TECHNOLOGY - Mechanical Engineering Multiple choice Questions Answers

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PRODUCTION TECHNOLOGY Questions Answers


1. Work study is concerned with
(a) improving present method and finding standard time
(b) motivation of workers
(c) improving production capability
(d) improving production planning and control
(e) all of the above.
Ans: a

2. Basic tool in work study is
(a) graph paper
(b) process chart
(c) planning chart
(d) stop watch
(e) analytical mind.
Ans: d

3. What does symbol ‘O’ imply in work study
(a) operation
(b) inspection
(c) transport
(d) delay/temporary storage
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a

4. What does symbol ‘D’ imply in work study
(a) inspection
(b) transport
(c) delay/temporary storage
(d) permanent storage
(e) none of the above.
Ans: c

5. What does symbol ‘V’ employ in work study
(a) operation
(b) inspection
(c) delay/ temporary Storage
(d) permanent storage
(e) none of the above.
Ans: d

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89. Graphical method, simplex method, and transportation method are concerned with
(a) break-even analysis
(b) value analysis
(c) linear programming
(d) queing theory
(e) tnaterial handling.
Ans: c

90. Which one of the following represents a group incentive plan ?
(a) Scanlon Plan
(b) Rowan Plan
(c) Bedaux Plan
(d) Taylor Differential Piece Rate System
(e) Halsey Premium Plan.
Ans: a

PRODUCTION TECHNOLOGY Multiple choice Questions and Answers :-


91. In the Halsey 50-50 plan, the following are rewarded more
(a) past good workers
(b) past poor workers
(c) past average workers
(d) all of the above
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b

92. In the Halsey system of wage incentive plan, a worker is
(a) paid as per efficiency
(b) ensured of minimum wages
(c) not paid any bonus till his efficiency
(d) never a loser
(e) induced to do more work.
Ans: b

 

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179. Pessimistic time is
(a) the maximum time which an activity might require
(b) the average time required for a job
(c) the most probable time considering all conditions
(d) the minimum time in which an activity can possibly be accomplished
(e) the earliest finish.
Ans: a

180. In PERT analysis, critical path is obtained by joining events having
(a) +ve slack
(b) -ve slack
(c) zero sldck
(d) dummy activities
(e) critical activities.
Ans: c

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I.C. Engines - Mechanical Engineering Multiple choice Questions Answers

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1. The working cycle in case of four stroke engine is completed in following number of revolutions of crankshaft
(a)     1/2
(b)     1
(c)     2
(d)     4
(e)     8.
Ans: c

2. In a diesel engine, the fuel is ignited by
(a)     spark
(b)     injected fuel
(c) heat resulting from compressing air that is supplied for combustion
(d) ignition
(e) combustion chamber.
Ans: c

3. Scavenging air in diesel engine means
(a) air used for combustion sent under pres-sure
(b) forced air for cooling cylinder
(c) burnt air containing products of combustion
(d) air used for forcing burnt gases out of engine's cylinder during the exhaust period
(e) air fuel mixture.
Ans: d

4. Supercharging is the process of
(a) supplying the intake of an engine with air at a density greater than the density of the surrounding atmosphere
(b) providing forced cooling air
(c) injecting excess fuel for raising more load
(d) supplying compressed air to remove combustion products fully
(e) raising exhaust pressure.
Ans: a

5. Does the supply of scavenging air at a density greater than that of atmosphere mean engine is supercharged ?
(a)     yes
(b)     no
(c) to some extent
(d) unpredictable
(e) depends on other factors.
Ans: b

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249. Method of governing used in diesel engine is
(a) quantity governing
(b) quality governing
(c) combined governing
(d) partial governing
(e) nit and miss governing.

250. An engine has a normal speed of 960 r.p.m. and no load speed of 1000 r.p.m. The speed droop of governor will be about
(a) 2%
(b) 4%
(c) 8%
(d)±4%
(e) 1%.
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MACHINE DESIGN - Mechanical Engineering Multiple choice Questions Answers

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MACHINE DESIGN Questions Answers


1. The ultimate strength of steel in tension in comparison to shear is in the ratio of
(a) 1 : l
(b) 2:1
(c) 3 : 2
(d) 2 : 3
(e) 1 : 2
Ans: c

2. The permissible stress for carbon steel under static loading is generally taken as
(a) 2000-3000 kg/pm2
(b) 3000-4000 kg/cm2
(c) 4000-4500 kg/cm2
(d) 7500-10,000 kg/cm2
(e) 10,000-15,000 kg/cm2.
Ans: c

3. The property of a material which enables it to resist fracture due to high impact loads is known as
(a) elasticity
(b) endurance
(c) strength
(d) toughness
(e) resilience.
Ans: d

4. A hot short metal is
(a) brittle when cold
(b) brittle when hot
(c) brittle under all conditions
(d) ductile at high temperature
(e) hard when hot.
Ans: b

5. Guest’s theory of failure is applicable for following type of materials
(a) brittle
(b) ductile
(c) elastic
(d) plastic
(e) tough.
Ans: b

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140. The shock absorbing capacity of a bolt can be increased by
(a) tightening it properly
(b) increasing shank diameter
(c) grinding the shank
(d) using washer
(e) making shank diameter equal to core diameter of thread.
Ans: e

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COMPRESSORS, GAS TURBINES and JET ENGINES – Mechanical Engineering Multiple choice Questions Answers

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COMPRESSORS GAS TURBINES and JET ENGINES Questions Answers




  1. Free air is the air at


(a) atmospheric conditions at any specific location

(b) 20°C and 1 kg/cm2 and relative humidity of 36%

(c) 0°C and standard atmospheric conditions

(d) 15°C and 1 kg/cm2

(e) 25°C, 1 kg/cm2 and relative humidity of 50%.

Ans: a

 

  1. Standard air is the air at


(a) atmospheric conditions at any specific location

(b) 20°C and 1 kg/cm2 and relative humidity 36%

(c) 0°C and standard atmospheric conditions

(d) 15°C and 1 kg/cm2

(e) 25°C, 1 kg/cm2 and RH of 60%.

Ans: b

 

  1. 1 m of air at atmospheric condition weighs approximately


(a) 0.5 kg

(b) 1.0 kg

(c) 1.3 kg

(d) 2.2 kg

(e) 3.2 kg.

Ans: c

 

 

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  1. The compression ratio in a jet engine varies proportional to


(a) speed

(b) speed

(c) altitude

(d) Vspeed

(e) does not Vary.

Ans: b

 

  1. The efficiency of jet engine is


(a) higher at ground

(b) higher at high altitudes

(c) same at all altitudes

(d) higher at high speed

(e) lower at low speed.

Ans: b

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Nuclear Power Plants - Mechanical Engineering Multiple choice Questions Answers

Nuclear Power Plants


Mechanical Engineering Multiple choice Questions Answers


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“Nuclear Power Plants”


Mechanical Engineering MCQS


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Nuclear Power Plants Questions Answers


 

  1. The efficiency of a nuclear power plant in comparsion to a conventional thermal power plant is
    (a) same
    (b) more
    (c) less
    (d) may be less or mote depending on size
    (e) unpredictable.
    Ans: c

  2. Isotopes of same elements have


(a) same atomic number and different masses
(b) same chemical properties but different atomic numbers
(c) different masses and different atomic numbers
(d) different chemical properties and same atomic numbers
(e) same chemical properties and same atomic numbers.
Ans: b

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90. The fuel needed, with reflector in nuclear power plant, in order to generate sufficient neutrons to sustain a chain reaction, would be
(a) more
(b) less
(c) same
(d) zero
(e) negative, i.e. fuel would be generated.
Ans: b

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INDUSTRIAL ENGINEERING - Mechanical Engineering Multiple choice Questions Answers

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INDUSTRIAL ENGINEERING


 Mechanical Engineering Multiple choice Questions Answers


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“INDUSTRIAL ENGINEERING”


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INDUSTRIAL ENGINEERING Questions Answers



  1. A graphical device used to determine the break-even point and profit potential under varying conditions of output and costs, is known as
    (a) Gnatt chart
    (b) flow chart
    (c) break-even chart
    (d) PERT chart
    (e) Taylor chart.
    Ans: c

  2. Break-even analysis consists of
    (a) fixed cost
    (b) variable cost
    (c) fixed and variable costs
    (d) operation costs
    (e) none of the above.
    Ans: c

  3. Break-even analysis shows profit when
    (a) sales revenue > total cost
    (b) sales revenue = total cost
    (c) sales revenue < total cost
    (d) variable cost < fixed cost
    (e) none of the above.
    Ans: a

  4. In braek-even analysis, total cost consists of
    (a) fixed cost
    (b) variable cost
    (c) fixed cost + variable cost
    (d) fixed cost + variable cost + over-heads
    (e) fixed cost + sales revenue.
    Ans: a





  5. ...

    219. Simplex method is used for

    (a) linear programming
    (b) queuing theory
    (c) network analysis
    (d) value engineering
    (e) all of the above.

    220. Depreciation of machines is categorized under the head
    (a) direct expenses
    (b) indirect expenses
    (c) receipts
    (d) administrative expenses
    (e) indirect material costs.

    221. Depreciation of machines, according to income tax regulations is calculated on the basis of following method
    (a) straight line
    (b) sinking fund
    (c) machine hour
    (d) rate of return
    (e) declining balance.

    222. In project appraisal analysis, shadow prices are
    (a) used for lost items
    (b) used to convert inputs into cost and output into benefits
    (c) used to determine feasibility of project
    (d) taken as the basis for determining value of all the assets
    (e) none of the above,

    223. Cash discounts are reduction in price of goods
    (a) sold on credit
    (b) which depends on assurance of payment
    (c) which depends on prompt cash payment
    (d) obtainable on bad debt loans
    (e) which have good bargaining capacity of seller.


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Refrigeration and Air Conditioning - Mechanical Engineering Multiple choice Questions Answers

Refrigeration and Air Conditioning


 Mechanical Engineering Multiple choice Questions Answers


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“Refrigeration and Air Conditioning”


Mechanical Engineering MCQS


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Refrigeration and Air Conditioning Questions Answers



  1. Pick up the wrong statement. A refrigerant should have
    (a) Tow specific heat of liquid
    (b) high boiling point
    (c) high latent heat of vaporisation
    (d) higher critical temperature
    (e) low specific volume of vapour.
    Ans: b

  2. A standard ice point temperature corresponds to the temperature of
    (a) water at 0°C
    (b) ice at – 4°C
    (c) solid and dry ice
    (d) mixture of ice, water and vapour under equilibrium conditions under NTP conditions
    (e) mixture of ice and water Under equilibrium conditions.
    Ans: e

  3. Vapour compression refrigeration is some what like
    (a) Carnot cycle
    (b) Rankine cycle
    (c) reversed Camot cycle
    (d) reversed Rankine cycle
    (e) none of the above.
    Ans: e


 

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90. The change in evaporator temperature in a refrigeration cycle, as compared to change in condenser temperature, influences the value of C.O.P.
(a) more
(b) less
(c) equally.
(d) unpredictable
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a

 

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Strength of Materials - Mechanical Engineering Multiple choice Questions Answers

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Strength of Materials


 Mechanical Engineering Multiple choice Questions Answers


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“Strength of Materials”


Mechanical Engineering MCQS


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Strength of Materials Questions Answers


1. Strain is defined as the ratio of
(a) change in volume to original volume
(b) change in length to original length
(c) change in cross-sectional area to original cross-sectional area
(d) any one of the above
(e) none of the above.
Ans: d

2. Hooke’s law holds good up to
(a) yield point
(b) limit of proportionality
(c) breaking point
(d) elastic limit
(e) plastic limit.
Ans: b

3. Young’s modulus is defined as the ratio of
(a) volumetric stress and volumetric strain
(b) lateral stress and lateral strain
(c) longitudinal stress and longitudinal strain
(d) shear stress to shear strain
(e) longitudinal stress and lateral strain.
Ans: c

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84. In a belt drive, the pulley diameter is doubled, the belt tension and pulley width remaining same. The changes required in key will be
(a) increase key length
(b) increase key depth
(c) increase key width
(d) double all the dimensions
(e) none of the above.
Ans: c

85. Shear stress induced in a shaft subjected to tension will be
(a) maximum at periphery and zero at center
(b) maximum at center
(c) uniform throughout
(d) average value in center
(e) none of the above.
Ans: e

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Steam Boilers Engines Nozzles and Turbines - Mechanical Engineering Multiple choice Questions Answers

Steam Boilers, Engines, Nozzles and Turbines


 Mechanical Engineering Multiple choice Questions Answers


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“Steam Boilers, Engines, Nozzles and Turbines”


Mechanical Engineering MCQS


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Steam Boilers, Engines, Nozzles and Turbines Questions Answers



  1. For water, at pressures below atmospheric,
    (a) melting point rises slightly and boiling point drops markedly
    (b) melting point rises markedly and boiling point drops markedly
    (c) melting point drops slightly and boiling point drops markedly
    (d) melting point drops slightly and boiling point drops slightly
    (e) none of the above.
    Ans: a

  2. At very low temperature, the melting and boiling temperatures become equal. This temperature is
    (a) 373°K
    (b) 273.16°K
    (c) 303°K
    (d) 0°K.
    (e) 300°K.
    Ans: b

  3. The critical pressure at which latent heat of vaporisation is zero is
    (a) 225.65 kgf/cm2
    (b) 273 kgf/cm2
    (c) 100 kgf/cm2
    (d) 1 kgf/cm2
    (e) – 1 kgf/cm2.
    Ans: a

  4. The latent heat of steam at pressures greater than atmospheric in comparison to latent heat at atmospheric pressure is
    (a) less
    (b) more
    (c) equal
    (d) may be less or more depending on temperature
    (e) unpredictable.
    Ans: a


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199. Feed water conditioning in thermal power plants in done to
(a) reduce hardness and for removal of solids
(b) increase efficiency-of thermal power plant
(c) increase *heat transfer rate
(d) increase steam parameters
(e) all of the above.
Ans: a

200. The basic job of feed water treatment in boilers is to overcome the problem of
(a) corrosion
(b) scale
(c) carryover
(d) embrittlement
(e) all of the above.
Ans: e

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Thermodynamics - Mechanical Engineering Multiple choice Questions Answers

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Thermodynamics


 Mechanical Engineering Multiple choice Questions Answers


Thermodynamics MCQ PDF


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“Thermodynamics”


Mechanical Engineering MCQS


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Thermodynamics Questions Answers



  1. Which of the following variables controls the physical properties of a perfect gas
    (a) pressure
    (b) temperature
    (c) volume
    (d) all of the above
    (e) atomic mass.
    Ans: d

  2. Which of the following laws is applicable for the behavior of a perfect gas
    (a) Boyle’s law
    (b) Charles’law
    (c) Gay-Lussac law
    (d) all of the above
    (e) Joule’s law.
    Ans: d

  3. The unit of temperature in S.I. units is
    (a) Centigrade
    (b) Celsius
    (c) Fahrenheit
    (d) Kelvin
    (e) Rankine.
    Ans: d

  4. The unit of mass in S.I. units is
    (a) kilogram
    (b) gram
    (c) tonne
    (d) quintal
    (e) newton.
    Ans: a

  5. The unit of time in S.I. units is
    (a) second
    (b) minute
    (c) hour
    (d) day
    (e) year.
    Ans: a


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158. The following cycle is used for air craft refrigeration
(a) Brayton cycle
(b) Joule cycle
(c) Carnot cycle
(d) Bell-Coleman cycle
(e) Reversed-Brayton cycle.
Ans: e

159. Gas turbine cycle consists of
(a) two isothermals and two isentropics
(b) two isentropics and two constant volumes
(c) two isentropics, one constant volume and one constant pressure
(d) two isentropics and two constant pressures
(e) none of the above.
Ans: d

160. The thermodynamic difference between a Rankine cycle working with saturated steam and the Carnot cycle is that
(a) carnot cycle can’t work with saturated steam
(b) heat is supplied to water at temperature below the maximum temperature of the cycle
(c) a rankine cycle receives heat at two places
(d) rankine cycle is hypothetical
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b

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THEORY of MACHINES - Mechanical Engineering Multiple choice Questions Answers

THEORY of MACHINES


 Mechanical Engineering Multiple choice Questions Answers


Theory of Machines MCQ pdf


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“THEORY of MACHINES”


Mechanical Engineering MCQS


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THEORY of MACHINES Questions Answers



  1. Which of the following disciplines provides study of inertia forces arising from the combined effect of the mass and the motion of the parts
    (a) theory of machines
    (b) applied mechanics
    (c) mechanisms
    (d) kinetics
    (e) kinematics.
    Ans: d

  2. Which of the following disciplines provides study of relative motion between the parts of a machine
    (a) theory of machines
    (b) applied mechanics
    (c) mechanisms
    (d) kinetics
    (e) kinematics.
    Ans: e

  3. Which of the following disciplines provides study of the relative motion between the parts of a machine and the forces acting on the parts
    (a) theory of machines
    (b) applied mechanics
    (c) mechanisms
    (d) kinetics
    (e) kinematics.
    Ans: a

  4. The type of pair formed by two elements which are so connected that one is constrained to turn or revolve about a fixed axis of another element is known as
    (a) turning pair
    (b) rolling pair
    (c) sliding pair
    (d) spherical pair
    (e) lower pair,
    Ans: a


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153. Angle of action of cam is defined as the angle
(a) during which the follower returns to its initial position
(b) of rotation of the cam for a definite displacement of the follower
(c) through which the cam rotates during the period in which the follower remains in the highest position
(d) moved by the cam from the instant the follower begins to rise, till it reaches its highest position
(e) moved by the cam from beginning of ascent to the termination of descent.
Ans: e

154. Angle of dwell of cam is defined as the angle
(a) during which the follower returns to its initial position
(b) of rotation of the cam for definite dis¬placement of the follower
(c) through which the cam rotates during the period in which the follower remains in the highest position
(d) moved by the cam from the instant the follower begins to rise, till it reaches its highest position
(e) moved by the cam from a beginning of ascent to the termination of descent.
Ans: c

155. Angle of ascent of cam is defined as the angle
(a) during which the follower returns to its initial position
(b) of rotation of the cam for a definite displacement of the follower
(c) through which the cam rotates during the period in which the follower remains in highest position
(d) moved by the cam from the instant the follower begins to rise, till it reaches its highest position
(e) moved by the cam from beginning oi ascent to the termination of descent.
Ans: d

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ENGINEERING MECHANICS - Mechanical Engineering Multiple choice Questions Answers

ENGINEERING MECHANICS


Mechanical Engineering Multiple choice Questions Answers


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“ENGINEERING MECHANICS”


Mechanical Engineering MCQS


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ENGINEERING MECHANICS Questions Answers



  1. The unit of force in S.I. units is
    (a) kilogram
    (b) newton
    (c) watt
    (d) dyne
    (e) joule.
    Ans: b

  2. 2. The unit of work or energy in S.I. units is
    (a)     newton
    (b)     pascal
    (c) kilogram meter
    (d) watt
    (e)     joule.
    Ans: e

  3. 3. The unit of power in S.I. units is
    (a)     newton meter
    (b)     watt
    (c)     joule
    (d)     kilogram meter/sec.
    (e) pascal per sec.
    Ans: b


4. Forces are called concurrent when their lines of action meet in
(a) one point
(b) two points
(c) plane
(d) perpendicular planes
(e) different planes.
Ans: a

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139. In ideal machines
(a) mechanical advantage is greater than velocity ratio
(b) mechanical advantage is equal to velocity ratio
(c) mechanical advantage is less than velocity ratio
(d) mechanical advantage is unity
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b


140. A cable with a uniformly distributed load per horizontal meter run will take the following shape
(a) straight line
(b) parabola
(c) hyperbola
(d) elliptical
(e) part of a circle.
Ans: b

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